Family
Sep. 25, 2010
When Your Marriage Is Invalid, Who Gets Paid?
In the absence of a premarital agreement, how is accumulated wealth split when the ex-spouse was never a spouse in the first place? By Mitchell A. Jacobs and Ryan McEachern of the Law Office of Mitchell A. Jacobs.
It is generally understood in today's world that if one enters into marriage without a premarital agreement, and they have the misfortune of divorce, they will be forced to divide roughly half of the assets accumulated during the marriage. But should one have to give up half their accumulated wealth to their ex-spouse when it turns out that the ex-spouse was never a spouse in the first place? In re Marriage ...
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